taxes
, finance
Suppose two companies A and B are separate but closely connected, e.g., controlled and owned by the same sole-director, collaborate in a new product where
So B is customer facing. Since A and B are closely connected, if A so happens to be resident in a tax-favourable jurisdiction, B could take a minimal “fee” for providing the CS and branding services and “shifts” profits to A.
The fair value of B’s services would be relatively low compared to the services A provides (manufacturing, logistics, etc.). So, even with the arm’s length principle, B could still “shift” most of the profits away - correct?
Any thought appreciated.
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