currency
, debt
, bonds
Given that eurozone states issue their bonds separately, and pay different rates of interest according to investors’ perceived risk of default, why is it accepted that a Greek default would mean Greece “leaving” the eurozone?
Some possible explanations:
I have read widely on this subject, but no one asks or answers this question. Apparently the answer is too obvious! Please help.
NB: A closely related (but not identical) question has already been asked here. I was unsatisfied with the answer but couldn’t figure out a way to indicate this without posting a non-“answer” of my own.
Because Greece is still running a large primary deficit, which means that it has to continually borrow more money to keep its government running, even excluding interest payments and maturity on existing debt. It can’t currently borrow in commercial markets, whether or not it defaults. If it defaults without the consent of the EU and IMF (a “disorderly” default) then it can’t expect to get any more funding from them either. So in the event of a disorderly default, the only way it can avoid making savage cuts (much worse and faster than those envisaged under the current proposals) is to print more money – but it can’t print Euro, so it has to withdraw from the Euro in order to regain control of its own currency.
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